TNPSC Civil Engineering (Code 398): Answer key

1. Annual repairs is ______ of the total cost of construction.

A) 1% to 1.5%

B) 1.5% to 2.0%

C) 2.0% to 2.5%

D) 2.5% to 3.0%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Annual repairs are commonly taken as 1%–1.5% of the construction cost in building maintenance practice.

2. The written agreement to submit present or future differences to arbitration is called

A) Arbitration agreement

B) Arbitration

C) Arbitrator

D) Joint Arbitrator

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A written undertaking to refer disputes to arbitration is an arbitration agreement.

3. The full form of N.I.T. is

A) Notice Inviting Tenders

B) Notice Information Tenders

C) Notice Intake Tenders

D) Notice Invoice Tenders

E) Answer not known

Explanation: N.I.T. stands for Notice Inviting Tenders, which invites bids for works or services.

4. Revised estimate is prepared when there is

A) Addition of new work

B) Deduction of existing work

C) Changes in design

D) Changes in quantity of materials and rate

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A revised estimate is taken up when quantities or rates change so that the sanctioned amount is exceeded substantially.

5. Item rate contract is also known as

A) Target contract

B) Unit-price contract

C) Percentage rate contract

D) Lump-sum contract

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In item rate (unit-price) contracts, payment is per measured quantity at agreed unit rates.

6. The brickwork is not measured in m³ in case of

A) Brick work in arches

B) Brick work in foundation

C) Half brick work

D) Reinforced brick work

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Half-brick masonry is measured in area (m²), not in volume (m³).

7. Which one of the following is not a scheduling tool?

A) Pie charts

B) Bar charts

C) CPM

D) PERT

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Pie charts are for proportion visualisation, not for time scheduling; bar charts (Gantt), CPM and PERT are scheduling tools.

8. _____ is the time span by which the start (or finish) of an activity can be delayed without delaying project completion.

A) Total float

B) Free float

C) Independent float

D) Interfering float

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Total float is the maximum delay to an activity without affecting overall project duration.

9. Unit of measurement of wooden door and window shutters is

A) m

B) m²

C) m³

D) Lump-sum

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Shutters are measured by surface area in square metres (m²).

10. Which one of the following is not an event?

A) Fixing of doors

B) Design completed

C) Concrete cured

D) Brickwork laid

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In project management (CPM/PERT), an event is a specific point in time that marks the completion of an activity. It has no duration — it’s an instantaneous occurrence, like “Design completed” or “Concrete cured”. "Fixing of doors" is an activity (takes time), not an event. "Brickwork laid" is an event because it marks the completion of laying bricks at a specific point in time.

11. Cost on account of materials for a building should be

A) 50% to 60% of the whole building cost

B) 40% to 50% of the whole building cost

C) 60% to 65% of the whole building cost

D) 65% to 70% of the whole building cost

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A thumb rule is that materials constitute roughly 50%–60% of the total building cost.

12. In crashing of activities, the first activity to be considered for crashing is

A) Critical activity with maximum cost slope

B) Critical activity with minimum cost slope

C) Non-critical activity with maximum cost slope

D) Non-critical activity with minimum cost slope

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Crash critical-path activities first, starting with the minimum cost slope to minimise project crashing cost.

13. In PERT, the standard deviation of an activity duration is

A) \(\sigma = \dfrac{t_m - t_o}{6}\)

B) \(\sigma = \dfrac{t_p - t_m}{6}\)

C) \(\sigma = \dfrac{t_p - t_o}{6}\)

D) \(\sigma = \sqrt{\dfrac{\sum (t-\bar t)^2}{n}}\)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: PERT uses three-time estimates: optimistic \(t_o\), most likely \(t_m\), pessimistic \(t_p\). The activity standard deviation is \(\sigma = (t_p - t_o)/6\).

14. The main objective of planning is to execute the project

A) Most economically and in time

B) Only timely completion

C) Only most economically

D) Economically and safely

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Planning targets both time and cost optimisation.

15. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is known as

A) Resource allocation

B) Resource smoothing

C) Updating

D) Resource levelling

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Updating revises a plan based on latest progress and changes.

16. The type of canal lining suitable for a permissible maximum velocity of 1.5 m/s is

A) Cement concrete

B) Tile lining

C) Lime concrete lining

D) Boulder lining

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For cement concrete lining, the safe limiting velocity is 2.7 m/s. For boulder lining, it is 1.5 m/s and for burnt clay tile lining it is approximately 1.8 m/s.

17. Alkaline soils are best reclaimed by

A) Leaching

B) Addition of gypsum to soil

C) Providing good drainage

D) Addition of gypsum to soil and leaching

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Gypsum supplies Ca²⁺ to replace Na⁺ on the exchange complex; subsequent leaching removes soluble salts.

18. The following is not a remedial measure for water logging

A) Good drainage for irrigated land

B) Conjunctive use of water in the basin

C) Lining of canals and water courses

D) Contour bunding

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Contour bunding is an erosion-control measure on slopes; it does not directly address water logging.

19. The hydraulic methods of flood routing use

A) Equation of continuity only

B) Both the equation of motion and equation of continuity

C) Energy equation only

D) Equation of motion only

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Dynamic (hydraulic) routing solves the Saint-Venant equations—continuity and momentum.

20. Which of the following is the Muskingum storage equation?

A) S = K[ xQ + (1 − x) I ]

B) S = K[ xQ − (1 − x) I ]

C) S = K[ xI + (1 − x) Q ]

D) S = K[ xI − (1 − x) Q ]

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Muskingum method relates reach storage to inflow \(I\) and outflow \(Q\) as S = K[ xI + (1 − x) Q ].

21. The garret's diagrams are based on

A) Lacey's theory

B) Khosla's theory

C) Kennedy's theory

D) Bligh's theory

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Garret's diagrams are primarily used for designing stable irrigation channels. They provide a graphical method to determine the optimal dimensions (bed width, depth, and slope) of a channel, ensuring it remains stable and doesn't excessively erode or deposit sediment. These diagrams are based on Kennedy's theory of channel design, which focuses on finding a critical velocity that prevents both scouring and silting.

22. The chemical used to control reservoir evaporation is

A) Ethyl alcohol

B) Methyl alcohol

C) Cetyl alcohol

D) Butyl alcohol

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Cetyl alcohol is commonly used to form a thin film on the surface of water to reduce evaporation.

23. Dicken's formula for determination of peak discharge ($Q_{p}$) is

A) $Q_{p}=CA^{2/3}$ where $C=$ Constant $A=$ Catchment area in $km^{2}$

B) $Q_{p}=CA^{3/4}$ where $C=$ Constant $A=$ Catchment area in $km^{2}$

C) $Q_{p}=CA^{3/2}$ where $C=$ Constant $A=$ Catchment area in $km^{2}$

D) $Q_{p}=CA^{4/3}$ where $C=$ Constant $A=$ Catchment area in $km^{2}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Dicken's formula for peak discharge is $Q_{p}=CA^{3/4}$, where C is a constant and A is the catchment area in $km^{2}$.

24. A major irrigation project has cultural command area of

A) 5000 hectare

B) 7000 hectare

C) 10,000 hectare

D) Over 10,000 hectare

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A major irrigation project typically has a cultural command area of over 10,000 hectare.

25. The method of growing crops on ridges, running on the sides of water ditches, is known as

A) Flood irrigation

B) Check flooding

C) Furrow irrigation

D) Drip irrigation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Furrow irrigation is the method of growing crops on ridges with water running in ditches (furrows) between them.

26. The specific speed of pump is expressed as

A) $\frac{N\sqrt{Q}}{H^{5/4}}$

B) $\frac{N\sqrt{Q}}{H^{3/4}}$

C) $\frac{N\sqrt{P}}{H^{5/4}}$

D) $\frac{N\sqrt{P}}{H^{3/4}}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The specific speed of a pump is expressed as $N_s = \frac{N\sqrt{Q}}{H^{3/4}}$, where N is the speed, Q is the discharge, and H is the head.

27. The word unit hydrograph refers to the

A) Unit depth of run off with unit depth

B) Unit duration with unit depth of the storm

C) Unit period of the hydrograph

D) Unit area of the basin

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A unit hydrograph is the hydrograph of direct runoff resulting from one unit of effective rainfall over a specified duration.

28. ____ analysis is used to predict the future flood events by using the past observed data.

A) Design storm

B) Dickens formula

C) Hyetograph

D) Frequency

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Frequency analysis is a statistical method used to predict future flood events based on past observed data.

29. The slope of equipotential line in a two dimensional flow field is

A) $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{u}{v}$

B) $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{v}{u}$

C) $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-u}{v}$

D) $\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-v}{u}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The slope of an equipotential line is dy/dx = –u/v. In fluid‑flow theory, streamlines have slope dy/dx = v/u and equipotential lines are orthogonal to streamlines; therefore, the slope of the equipotential line is the negative reciprocal (–u/v).

30. The water year in India may be taken as

A) From June to May

B) From January to December

C) From April to March

D) From October to September

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In India, the water year is generally considered from June to May to align with the monsoon season.

31. The condition to be satisfied by the three routing coefficients of the Muskingum method is

A) $C_{0}+C_{1}+C_{2}=0$

B) $C_{0}+C_{1}+C_{2}=1$

C) $C_{0}C_{1}C_{2}=1$

D) $C_{0}-C_{1}-C_{2}=0$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The sum of the three routing coefficients ($C_0$, $C_1$, and $C_2$) in the Muskingum method must equal 1.

32. In a Non-prismatic channel

A) Unsteady flow is not possible

B) Flow is not possible

C) Uniform flow is not possible

D) Flow is always uniform

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A non-prismatic channel has varying shape, size, or slope along its length, so uniform flow is not possible.

33. The coefficient of discharge of an orifice meter is that of a venturimeter.

A) Equal to

B) Much more than

C) Much smaller than

D) Half

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Due to higher head loss from sudden contraction and expansion, the coefficient of discharge of an orifice meter is much smaller than that of a venturimeter.

34. According to Bernoulli's equation, C equals

A) $Z+P+V=C$

B) $Z+\frac{P}{w}+\frac{V}{g}=C$

C) $Z+\frac{P}{w}+\frac{V^{2}}{g}=C$

D) $Z+\frac{P}{w}+\frac{V^{2}}{2g}=C$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Bernoulli's equation for steady, incompressible, frictionless flow along a streamline is $Z+\frac{P}{w}+\frac{V^{2}}{2g}=C$.

35. A grid obtained by drawing a series of stream lines and equipotential lines is known as

A) Stream tube

B) Streak line

C) Circulation

D) Flow net

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A flow net is a graphical representation of flow with streamlines and equipotential lines intersecting at right angles.

36. A wooden pile is driven with a drop hammer weighing 20 kN and falling 1.0 m. The penetration in the last blow is 5 mm. Determine the load carrying capacity using the Engineering News formula.

A) 0.11 kN

B) 1.10 kN

C) 11.10 kN

D) 111.10 kN

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Using $P_u = \frac{WH}{S+C}$ with $W = 20$ kN, $H = 100$ cm, $S = 0.5$ cm, $C = 2.5$, and F.S. = 6, the safe load is approximately 111.1 kN.

37. The allowable load on a single pile is
(i) $\frac{2}{3}$ of final load at which total settlement is 12 mm
(ii) 50% of final load at which total settlement is 10% of pile diameter
(iii) Lesser of (i) or (ii)
(iv) Greater of (i) or (ii)

A) (iv)

B) (iii)

C) (ii)

D) (i)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 2911 (Part 1/Sec 1), the allowable load on a single pile is the lesser of:
(i) $\frac{2}{3}$ of the final load at which the total settlement is 12 mm, and
(ii) 50% of the final load at which the total settlement is 10% of the pile diameter.

38. What is the name of the piles driven at an inclination to resist large lateral or inclined forces?

A) Batter piles

B) Sheet piles

C) Anchor piles

D) Fender piles

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Batter piles are piles driven at an inclination to resist large lateral or inclined forces.

39. The group efficiency of piles can be greater than one, when the piles are

A) Driven into the loose sand

B) Driven into the dense sand

C) Driven into the soft clay

D) Driven into the stiff clay

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Group efficiency can exceed one in dense sand because driving piles compacts the soil, increasing bearing capacity.

40. Terzaghi approximate equations for the bearing capacity of circular footing is

A) $q_{u}=1.2CN_{c}+qN_{q}+0.4~\gamma BN_{\gamma}$

B) $q_{u}=1.2CN_{c}+qN_{q}+0.3~\gamma BN_{\gamma}$

C) $q_{u}=2.3~CN_{c}+qN_{q}+0.5~\gamma~BN_{\gamma}$

D) $q_{u}=2.3~CN_{c}+qN_{q}+0.8~\gamma BN_{\gamma}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Terzaghi's approximate equation for the ultimate bearing capacity of a circular footing is $q_{u}=1.2CN_{c}+qN_{q}+0.3~\gamma BN_{\gamma}$.

41. Very deep footing in dense sand, the type of shear failure is

A) General Shear Failure

B) Local Shear Failure

C) Punching Shear Failure

D) Clay Shear Failure

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In dense sand, for a very deep footing, the shear failure is of the punching type.

42. Identify the incorrect statement:
Bearing capacity of a footing on sand depends on

A) Position of Water Table

B) Width of footing

C) Depth of footing

D) Undrained shear strength

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Bearing capacity of a footing on sand depends on the position of the water table, width of footing, and depth of footing. Undrained shear strength applies to cohesive soils, not sand.

43. For undisturbed soil samples, the area ratio of the sampler should be less than

A) 20%

B) 50%

C) 15%

D) 10%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For undisturbed samples, the area ratio should be less than 10% to minimise disturbance.

44. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil

A) depends on width and is independent of depth

B) depends on depth and is independent of width

C) depends on both width and depth

D) is independent of width and depth

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per Terzaghi's theory, for purely cohesive soils, the net ultimate bearing capacity is independent of footing width and depth.

45. The bearing capacity factors $N_c$, $N_q$ and $N_{\gamma}$ are functions of

A) Width and depth of footing

B) Density of soil

C) Cohesion of soil

D) Angle of internal friction of soil

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Bearing capacity factors are dimensionless and depend on the angle of internal friction ($\phi$).

46. In a compaction test, if the compacting effort is increased, it will result in

A) Increase in maximum dry density and OMC

B) Increase in maximum dry density, OMC unchanged

C) Increase in maximum dry density and decrease in OMC

D) No change in dry density, decrease in OMC

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Higher compaction effort increases maximum dry density and decreases optimum moisture content.

47. In direct shear test, the angle of the failure plane with horizontal is ($\phi$ is the angle of internal friction)

A) 0

B) $45^{\circ} - \phi/2$

C) $45^{\circ} + \phi/2$

D) $90^{\circ}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In direct shear test, the angle of the failure plane with horizontal is Zero.

48. In the Modified Proctor Test, the drop height of the rammer is

A) 30 cm

B) 45 cm

C) 60 cm

D) 75 cm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The modified Proctor compaction test uses a heavier rammer (4.5 kg) falling through 45 cm (18 in)

49. If $q_u$ is unconfined compressive strength of clay, shear strength is

A) $q_u$

B) $2q_u$

C) $\frac{q_u}{2}$

D) $\frac{q_u}{4}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Shear strength $c = q_u / 2$.

50. Unconfined compressive strength test is a

A) Drained test

B) Undrained test

C) Consolidated undrained test

D) Unconsolidated undrained test

E) Answer not known

Explanation: It is performed quickly without drainage, so it is undrained.

51. The coefficient of permeability of a soil

A) Increases with increase in temperature

B) Increases with decrease in temperature

C) Increases with decrease in unit weight of water

D) Decreases with increase in void ratio

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Higher temperature reduces viscosity, increasing permeability.

52. The coefficient of consolidation is measured in

A) $cm^2/gm$

B) $cm^2/sec$

C) $gm/cm^2/sec$

D) $cm^2/gm/sec$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: It has dimensions of area per time, e.g., cm²/sec.

53. For a consolidating stratum, the ratio of times for 100% to 50% consolidation is

A) 0.197

B) 2.0

C) 5.076

D) Infinity

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Complete (100 %) consolidation theoretically takes an infinite time, and even the ratio for 90 % to 50 % consolidation is only about 4.3, not 5.076.

54. A coarse grained soil has $e = 0.78$, $G = 2.67$. Critical gradient for quicksand is

A) 1

B) 0.78

C) 0.67

D) 0.94

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a soil with void ratio e and specific gravity G, the critical hydraulic gradient (quicksand condition) is $i_c = \frac{G-1}{1+e}$ gives ~0.94

55. Expression for vertical stress at point 'p' using Newmark's Chart

A) $I \times n \times q$

B) $\frac{I \times n}{q}$

C) $\frac{I \times q}{n}$

D) $\frac{q \times n}{I}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: $\sigma_z = I \times n \times q$, where I = influence factor, n = sectors, q = load intensity.

56. Correct decreasing order of densities of a soil sample

A) Saturated, submerged, wet, dry

B) Saturated, wet, submerged, dry

C) Saturated, wet, dry, submerged

D) Wet, saturated, submerged, dry

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Highest density is saturated, followed by wet, then dry, then submerged.

57. Stoke's law is applicable when smallest effective particle diameter is

A) 0.0002 mm

B) 0.002 mm

C) 0.02 mm

D) 0.2 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Stokes’ law for particle settling is valid only for fine particles; that it applies to particles between about 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm in diameter, with the lower limit (≈0.0002 mm) below which Brownian motion becomes important.

58. Soils formed by dissolution of CaCO₃ and removal by rainfall is called

A) Hydration

B) Carbonation

C) Oxidation

D) Leaching

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Carbonation is chemical weathering where carbonic acid dissolves calcium carbonate.

59. ______ is the measure of loss of strength with remoulding without change in water content

A) Compressibility

B) Sensitivity

C) Stability

D) Cohesion

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Sensitivity measures reduction in strength when remoulded at same moisture content.

60. A soil has LL = 60%, PL = 35%, SL = 20%, natural moisture = 50%. Liquidity index is

A) 1.5

B) 1.25

C) 0.6

D) 0.4

E) Answer not known

Explanation: $I_L = (W_n - W_p)/(W_L - W_p) = (50 - 35)/(60 - 35) = 0.6$.

61. Which one of the following does not depend on the strength of the signal in remote sensing?

A) Altitude

B) Absorption

C) Dwell time

D) Energy flux

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Dwell time is the duration the sensor spends over a specific area, and it is a characteristic of the sensor's operation, not a factor that depends on the strength of the received signal.

62. The new version of total stations measures distance using

A) Intermittent signal

B) Carrier waves

C) Red laser

D) Electromagnetic waves

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A total station contains an electronic distance meter (EDM) that uses electromagnetic energy (infrared or laser) to measure distance. Modern reflectorless instruments emit a visible red laser beam; however, this is a type of electromagnetic wave, so the general category is electromagnetic waves.

63. Choose the correct statement from the following. In geodetic observations,

A) Coefficient of refraction varies roughly between 6 to 8

B) Coefficient of refraction is greatest at early morning

C) Value of coefficient of refraction diminishes until 4 pm

D) After 4 pm coefficient of refraction remains constant

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The coefficient of refraction is greatest at early morning due to atmospheric temperature gradients and decreases as the day warms up.

64. A branch of surveying where horizontal and vertical distances are measured without chain or tape is known as

A) Refraction survey

B) Tacheometry survey

C) Terrestrial survey

D) Trigonometric levelling

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Tacheometry is a branch of surveying where horizontal and vertical distances are measured using a tacheometer without a chain or tape.

65. Phase correction is related with

A) Tacheometric survey

B) Chain survey

C) Hydrographic survey

D) Triangulation survey

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In triangulation surveys, phase correction is applied to observed angles, particularly when observing signals in specific conditions (like sunlight) that can affect the precise location of the observed point. This correction accounts for the relative positions of the sun and the signal and can be positive, negative, or zero depending on the specific circumstances.

66. Which of the following is the correct formula when both angles are angles of depression in the tangential tacheometry method?

A) $D = \frac{S}{\tan\alpha_1 + \tan\alpha_2},\quad V = D \tan\alpha_2$

B) $D = \frac{S}{\tan\alpha_1 - \tan\alpha_2},\quad V = D \tan\alpha_1$

C) $D = \frac{S}{\tan\alpha_2 - \tan\alpha_1},\quad V = D \tan\alpha_2$

D) $D = \frac{S}{\tan\alpha_2 + \tan\alpha_1},\quad V = D \tan\alpha_1$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the tangential tacheometry method, when both sight lines are angles of depression, the horizontal distance $D$ is calculated using:
$D = \frac{S}{\tan\alpha_2 - \tan\alpha_1}$
where:
$S$ = stadia intercept, $\alpha_1$ = vertical angle to the upper stadia hair, $\alpha_2$ = vertical angle to the lower stadia hair.
The vertical component $V$ is given by $V = D \tan\alpha_1$.

67. Which of the following is NOT a recognised method for curve setting in surveying?

A) Transit method

B) Tangent method

C) Graphical method

D) Axis method

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The transit, tangent, and graphical methods are all recognized methods for setting out curves. The axis method is not a standard term for curve setting.

68. Equalising back sight and foresight distances is related with elimination of error due to

A) Non-parallelism of line of sight and axis of telescope

B) Index eccentricity

C) Non-parallelism of line of collimation and bubble line

D) Tilted horizontal axis

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Equalizing back sight and foresight distances helps eliminate errors caused by the line of collimation and bubble line not being parallel.

69. Which of the following is the correct formula for closing errors in traversing?

A) $e = \sqrt{(\Sigma L) + (\Sigma D)}$

B) $e = \sqrt{(\Sigma L) - (\Sigma D)}$

C) $e = \sqrt{(\Sigma L)^2 - (\Sigma D)^2}$

D) $e = \sqrt{(\Sigma L)^2 + (\Sigma D)^2}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The closing error $e$ in traversing is computed using:
$e = \sqrt{(\Sigma L)^2 + (\Sigma D)^2}$
where:
$\Sigma L$ = algebraic sum of latitudes of traverse lines,
$\Sigma D$ = algebraic sum of departures of traverse lines.

70. If the side of a regular hexagon is ‘a’, then the area is

A) $0.83a^2$

B) $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}a^2$

C) $\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}a^2$

D) $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}a^2$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The area of a regular hexagon with side length $a$ is:
$\text{Area} = \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}a^2$
This is derived by dividing the hexagon into 6 equilateral triangles and summing their areas.

71. The operation of taking levels along the centre line of any road is known as

A) Cross-sectional levelling

B) Profile levelling

C) Reciprocal levelling

D) Check levelling

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Profile levelling is the process of determining the elevations along a specific line, such as the centre line of a road.

72. Which of the following examples are correct in obstacles to both chaining and ranging?
(i) Pond
(ii) River
(iii) Building
(iv) Hedge

A) (i) and (iv) only

B) (ii) and (iii) only

C) (iv) only

D) (iii) only

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An obstacle to both chaining and ranging is one that blocks both the measurement of distance and the line of sight. A building is a solid obstacle that hinders both.

73. Which one of the following is not the error due to manipulation and sighting?

A) Defective orientation

B) Defective centring

C) Movement of board between sights

D) Errors of plotting

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Errors of plotting are graphical errors, while the other options relate to physical manipulation and sighting during the survey.

74. The apparent movement between the cross-hairs and staff reading, is known as

A) Parallax

B) Collimation error

C) Refraction error

D) Human error

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Parallax is the apparent relative movement between the cross-hairs and the image of the object, which is caused by improper focusing.

75. Fore bearing of line AB is $S30^{\circ}22^{\prime}W$ find the back bearing of line BA

A) N $30^{\circ}22^{\prime}N$

B) N $30^{\circ}22^{\prime}E$

C) N $59^{\circ}38^{\prime}W$

D) N $59^{\circ}38^{\prime}$ E

E) Answer not known

Explanation: To find the back bearing from the fore bearing in the quadrant system, the directions are reversed. Thus, the back bearing of line BA is N $30^{\circ}22^{\prime}E$.

76. The tolerance limit of COD in industrial wastewater to be discharged in surface water is

A) $250~mg/L$

B) $20~mg/L$

C) $25~mg/L$

D) $0.25~mg/L$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The tolerance limit for Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) in treated industrial wastewater discharged into surface water bodies is generally 250 mg/L, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) guidelines. This limit applies to discharge into inland surface water, public sewers, and for irrigation purposes, according to the CPCB.

77. A device which can be used to control gases as well as particulate pollutants, in the industrial emissions, is known as

A) cyclone collectors

B) dynamic precipitator

C) spray tower

D) fabric filter

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A spray tower, a type of wet scrubber, is effective at removing both gaseous pollutants and particulate matter from industrial emissions.

78. Smog is a mixture of

A) Ozone and smoke

B) Fog and smoke

C) Fog and ozone

D) Fire and smoke

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The term "smog" is a combination of the words smoke and fog.

79. The sequence of conversion of nitrogeneous matter in aerobic nitrogen cycle

A) Protein, NH3, Nitrite, Nitrate

B) Protein, Ammonium, Nitrate, Nitrite

C) Organic nitrogen, organic acids, nitrite, nitrate

D) Organic nitrogen, organic acid, nitrite

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the aerobic nitrogen cycle, organic nitrogen (Protein) is converted to ammonia (NH3), then to nitrite, and finally to nitrate.

80. The maintenance and running cost of sewerage system is about of capital cost.

A) 1.5% to 2%

B) 2% to 2.5%

C) 2.5% to 3%

D) 3% to 3.5%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The maintenance and running cost of a sewerage system is approximately 1.5% to 2% of the total capital cost.

81. Match the following:

List I (Pollution Control Device)

1. Electrostatic precipitators
2. Cyclone separator
3. Wet scrubbers
4. Adsorbers

List II (Pollutant)

1. Coarse particles
2. Fine dust
3. Gas
4. Sulphur dioxide

A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4

B) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3

C) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

D) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Electrostatic precipitators are used for fine dust (2). Cyclone separators are for coarse particles (1). Wet scrubbers can remove gases like Sulphur dioxide (4). Adsorbers are used for gas (3) removal.

82. Which of the following is provided before the water enters the watermeter in the house?

A) Stop cock

B) Ferrule

C) Goose neck

D) Bib cock

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A stop cock is installed before the water meter to allow the water supply to be shut off.

83. The most common coagulant is

A) Aluminium Sulphate

B) Magnesium sulphate

C) Aluminium Chloride

D) Bleaching powder

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Aluminium Sulphate, commonly known as alum, is the most widely used coagulant in water treatment.

84. The design technique adopted in the design of large water supply networks as an aid to simplify and separate the smaller loops is

A) Hardy cross method

B) Circle method

C) Electrical analyser method

D) Equivalent pipe method

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The equivalent pipe method is a design technique used to simplify complex water supply networks into a single hydraulically equivalent pipe.

85. Aeration of water is done to remove

A) Odour

B) Colour

C) Bacterias

D) Hardness

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Aeration is primarily used to remove gases that cause taste and odour, and to oxidize dissolved iron and manganese.

86. Rate of filtration in a slow sand filter is in the range of

A) 100 to 200 lit/$m^{2}$/hr

B) 200 to 500 lit/$m^{2}$/hr

C) 2000 to 6000 lit/$m^{2}$/hr

D) 50 to 80 lit/$m^{2}$/hr

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The filtration rate for a slow sand filter is very low, typically ranging from 100 to 200 lit/$m^{2}$/hr.

87. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination of lower pH values is

A) Smaller

B) Larger

C) Same

D) Vary depends on dosage

E) Answer not known

Explanation: At lower pH levels, the more effective disinfectant, hypochlorous acid (HOCl), is more prevalent. Therefore, a smaller contact period is required for efficient chlorination.

88. Match List I with List II using the codes given below:

List I (Coagulant)

1. Alum
2. Copperas
3. Chlorinated copperas
4. Sodium Aluminate

List II (pH of water)

1. 8.5 and above
2. 6.5 to 8.5
3. Non-alkaline water
4. 3.5 to 6.5

A) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1

B) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

C) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

D) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Alum is effective in the pH range of 6.5 to 8.5 (2). Copperas is used in the range of 8.5 and above (1). Chlorinated copperas is for 3.5 to 6.5 (4). Sodium Aluminate for non-alkaline water (3).

89. The highest desirable level of Fluorides in drinking water is

A) 1 mg/L

B) 1.5 mg/L

C) 0.5 mg/L

D) 0.05 mg/L

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The highest desirable level of fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 mg/L.

90. The quality of water constituents are categorized as 1. Suspended solids 2. Dissolved ions and 3. ____?

A) Metals

B) Minerals

C) Bacteria

D) Gases

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Water quality constituents are typically categorized as physical (suspended solids), chemical (dissolved ions, gases), and biological (bacteria).

91. Lines capacity can be improved significantly using signalling on sub urban and high density traffic.

A) Second distant signal

B) Automatic signaling

C) Intermediate signaling

D) Light Emitting signals

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Automatic signaling systems are used on high-density railway lines to allow trains to run closer together safely, thereby improving line capacity.

92. Ruling gradient in hilly regions on railway track is

A) 1 in 150 to 1 in 200

B) 1 in 100 to 1 in 150

C) 1 in 200 to 1 in 250

D) 1 in 250 to 1 in 300

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The ruling gradient for railway tracks in hilly regions is typically in the range of 1 in 100 to 1 in 150.

93. The main function of break water is to

A) Break the momentum of water by means of wave breaker

B) Produce electricity

C) Build mole

D) Measure energy of waves

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A break water is a structure built to protect a harbor or coastline from waves by dissipating wave energy and **breaking the momentum of water**.

94. The size of ballast used on Indian Railways steel sleepers is

A) 2.5 cm

B) 3.5 cm

C) 3.8 cm

D) 5.1 cm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The standard size of ballast used on Indian Railways for steel sleepers is 3.8 cm.

95. Wear of rails may be reduced by

A) Increasing the number of rail joints

B) Decreasing the number of rail joints

C) Using high carbon steel rail

D) Increasing the spacing of sleepers

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Wear of rails is primarily caused by friction and stress. Using high carbon steel rail increases the hardness and strength of the rails, thereby reducing wear.

96. As per ICAO, for aerodromes designed for larger aircraft, the maximum longitudinal gradient for taxiways should not exceed

A) 1.2%

B) 1.0%

C) 3.0%

D) 1.5%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per ICAO standards, for aerodromes designed for larger aircraft, the maximum longitudinal gradient for taxiways should not exceed 1.5%.

97. The size of the gate position (i.e) loading area depends on

A) Size of Aircraft

B) Minimum turning radius

C) Parking configuration

D) Hangar size

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is A) Size of Aircraft, as it is a fundamental factor determining the overall space requirements for the gate position. Options B and C are also relevant but fall under the umbrella of considerations related to the size of the aircraft and its maneuvering capabilities. Hangar size (Option D) is not directly related to the size of the gate position.

98. It refers to the rectangular area at the end of runway in the direction of take off

A) Landing area

B) Landing strip

C) Landing direction indicator

D) Stopways

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A stopway is a rectangular area at the end of a runway, aligned in the same direction, that can be used to stop an aircraft during an aborted takeoff.

99. For large airports intended for commercial use, a maximum gradient of is used.

A) 2.5%

B) 1%

C) 1.5%

D) 2%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For large airports used for commercial flights, the maximum longitudinal gradient for runways is typically limited to 1% to ensure safe takeoff and landing.

100. Using "Slip form Paver", which of the following pavement is constructed?

A) Dense Graded Bituminous pavement

B) Open graded premix carpet pavement

C) Cement concrete pavement

D) Soil and well graded ballast pavement

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A slip form paver is a specialized machine used to continuously lay cement concrete pavement without the need for fixed side forms.

101. Match the following:

List I (Test)

1. Hardness
2. Durability
3. Ductility
4. Flakiness index

List II (Property)

1. Resistance to weathering
2. Shape factor
3. Resistance to abrasion
4. Adhesive property

A) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

C) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2

D) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hardness (a) is the resistance to abrasion (3). Durability (b) is the resistance to weathering (1). Ductility (c) refers to the adhesive property (4). Flakiness index (d) measures the shape factor (2).

102. In cement concrete pavements, tie bars are installed in

A) Expansion joints

B) Contraction joints

C) Warping joints

D) Longitudinal joints

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Tie bars hold adjacent concrete pavement slabs together across longitudinal joints to prevent separation.

103. Formula for finding space mean speed in a traffic stream is

A) $V_{s} = \frac{4.6\,dn}{\sum_{i=1}^{n} t_{i}}$

B) $V_{s} = \frac{4d}{nd}$

C) $V_{s} = \frac{3.6\,dn}{V}$

D) $V_{s} = \frac{3.6\,dn}{\sum_{i=1}^{n} t_{i}}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Space mean speed is given by $V_s = \frac{L \times n}{\sum t_i}$. Using $d$ for distance and $n$ for number of vehicles, and applying 3.6 for unit conversion, the formula is $V_{s} = \frac{3.6\,dn}{\sum_{i=1}^{n} t_{i}}$.

104. Traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary intersection are

A) Crossing and merging

B) Merging and diverging

C) Crossing and diverging

D) Crossing, merging and diverging

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Rotary intersections eliminate crossing conflicts; the remaining conflicts are merging and diverging.

105. In CBR test, the value of CBR is calculated at

A) 2.5 mm penetration only

B) 5.0 mm penetration only

C) 7.5 mm penetration only

D) Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The CBR value is determined at both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations; the higher value is usually adopted.

106. Identify the index/number that is not used for defining the shape factor

A) Elongation index

B) Angularity number

C) Flakiness index

D) Group index

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Group index is used for soil classification, whereas elongation index, angularity number, and flakiness index describe aggregate shape.

107. Camber of an earth road in heavy rainfall areas is

A) 1 in 25

B) 1 in 33

C) 1 in 40

D) 1 in 50

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For heavy rainfall, a camber of 1 in 25 ensures quick drainage from an earth road surface.

108. If stopping sight distance is 90 m, find the headlight sight distance and intermediate sight distance.

A) 60 m and 120 m

B) 80 m and 140 m

C) 90 m and 180 m

D) 90 m and 240 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Headlight sight distance = stopping sight distance = 90 m; intermediate sight distance = $2 \times 90 = 180$ m.

109. Type of survey used to collect data related to communication, industries, and commerce

A) Social survey

B) Territorial survey

C) Functional survey

D) Vital survey

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A functional survey is conducted to gather data related to specific functions or activities, such as communication, industries, commerce, transport, and utilities. It focuses on the operational aspects and performance of a particular sector rather than just its physical or demographic features. This type of survey is commonly used in urban and regional planning to support infrastructure and economic development decisions.

110. The term planning standard is used to fix the for each use of a certain population

A) Maximum area

B) Minimum area

C) Gross density

D) Net density

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Planning standards specify the minimum area required for various land uses per population size.

111. The living room, bedroom, and dining room should not be less than ____ m on one side

A) 1.5 m

B) 1.8 m

C) 2.2 m

D) 2.4 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The minimum side dimension for habitable rooms is generally 2.4 m.

112. Minimum width of stairway in a low-rise residential building

A) 1.0 m

B) 1.2 m

C) 1.1 m

D) 1.5 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Many building codes specify a minimum stair width of 1.1 m for low-rise residential buildings.

113. Sound energy converting into another form of energy is known as

A) Absorption

B) Echoes

C) Foci

D) Reverberation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Absorption converts sound energy into heat or other forms when it encounters a surface or material.

114. King closers are related to

A) Doors and windows

B) King post truss

C) Queen post truss

D) Brick masonry

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A king closer is a cut brick used in brick masonry to achieve proper bonding near openings.

115. Carbon content in low-carbon steel is up to

A) 0.15%

B) 0.3%

C) 0.05%

D) 0.35%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Low-carbon steel contains up to 0.3% carbon by weight.

116. The triangular-shaped masonry work provided at the ends of a sloped roof is termed as

A) Buttress

B) Freeze

C) Gable

D) Reveals

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A gable is the triangular wall section between the sloping edges of a roof.

117. The most commonly used and strongest bond for all wall thicknesses is

A) English bond

B) Header bond

C) Stretcher bond

D) Facing bond

E) Answer not known

Explanation: English bond is the strongest and most commonly used brick bond for walls of varying thickness.

118. The suitable grades of concrete for prestressed concrete works are

A) Lower than $M_{40}$

B) Higher than $M_{40}$

C) Lower than $M_{15}$

D) Lower than $M_{30}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Prestressed concrete requires high-strength mixes; suitable grades are higher than $M_{40}$.

119. Filling ability and passing ability are important characteristics of

A) Self-compacting concrete

B) Self-curing concrete

C) High-performance concrete

D) Sulphur-infiltrated concrete

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Self-compacting concrete flows and consolidates under its own weight, so filling and passing ability are key.

120. By proper proportioning and complete mixing of ingredients in concrete, which can be reduced?

A) Segregation

B) Bleeding

C) Pumping

D) Spreading

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Proper mix proportioning and thorough mixing reduce segregation—the separation of concrete components.

121. Bleeding of concrete leads to which of the following?

1. Drying up of concrete surface
2. Formation of pores inside
3. Segregation of aggregate
4. Decrease in strength

A) (i) only

B) (i) and (ii)

C) (i) and (iii)

D) (ii) and (iv)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Bleeding is the upward movement of water in fresh concrete. This can lead to the formation of pores inside the concrete and a decrease in its strength.

122. Find out the correct statement: admixtures are added to concrete to:

1. Increase the strength
2. Reduce heat of hydration
3. Delay the setting time
4. Reduce the water-cement ratio

A) (1) and (2)

B) (2) and (3)

C) (3) and (4)

D) (2) and (4)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct statements are (2) Reduce heat of hydration, (3) Delay the setting time, and (4) Reduce the water-cement ratio.

123. To prevent segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height of more than

A) $\frac{1}{2}$ m

B) 1 m

C) 1.5 m

D) 2 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: To prevent segregation of its components, concrete should not be thrown from a height exceeding 1.5 m during placement.

124. The term earthenware is used for clay products burnt at

A) High temperature

B) Medium temperature

C) Low temperature

D) Sunlight

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Earthenware is a type of pottery made from clay that is fired at a relatively low temperature, typically below 1200°C.

125. The size of coarse aggregates for plain cement concrete works is

A) 40–75 mm

B) 20–40 mm

C) 10–20 mm

D) 4.75–10 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The typical size range for coarse aggregates used in plain cement concrete works is 20–40 mm.

126. 'Dolomite' is

A) Sedimentary rock

B) Metamorphic rock

C) Igneous rock

D) Hard rock

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Dolomite is a sedimentary rock composed primarily of the mineral dolomite.

127. Which of the following stones is best suitable for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge?

A) Granite

B) Sandstone

C) Limestone

D) Quartzite

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Granite is a very hard and durable igneous rock, making it most suitable for structural applications like bridge piers and abutments.

128. Which chemical compound is mainly responsible for 7-day strength and hardness in cement hydration?

A) Dicalcium silicate

B) Tricalcium silicate

C) Tricalcium aluminate

D) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Tricalcium silicate ($C_3S$) is the main compound in cement responsible for early strength development, including the 7-day strength.

129. A good brick should not absorb water by weight more than

A) 10%

B) 20%

C) 25%

D) 30%

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per Indian Standards, a good brick should not absorb more than 20% of its dry weight after 24 hours of immersion.

130. A king closer is

A) Full brick

B) $\frac{3}{4}$ brick

C) Longitudinally $\frac{1}{2}$ brick

D) Crosswise $\frac{1}{2}$ brick

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A king closer is a brick cut so that its length is $\frac{3}{4}$ of a full brick, with one end full width and the other half width.

131. The diameter of Kernel of a circular section is

A) $d/4$

B) $d/3$

C) $d/4$

D) $d/\sqrt{2}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The diameter of the kernel for a circular section of diameter 'd' is equal to d/4.

132. Maximum shear stress theory was associated with

A) St. Venant

B) Mohr

C) Rankine

D) Tresca

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Maximum Shear Stress Theory, a failure theory for ductile materials, is associated with Tresca.

133. The radius of gyration of a circular column of diameter d is

A) $d/4$

B) $d/2$

C) $d^{2}/4$

D) $d^{2}/16$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The radius of gyration ($k$) for a circular section with diameter 'd' is given by $k = \sqrt{\frac{I}{A}} = \frac{d}{4}$.

134. The brick chimney is stable if the resultant thrust lies within the middle

A) One third

B) Two-third

C) Half

D) Either of (A) and (B)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a brick chimney or any masonry structure to be stable under eccentric loading, the resultant thrust must lie within the middle one-third of the section.

135. In a state of uni axial stress, the maximum shear stress is equal to

A) Half of uniaxial stress

B) Equal to uniaxial stress

C) 1.5 times uniaxial stress

D) 2 times uniaxial stress

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The maximum shear stress in a state of uniaxial stress is equal to half of the uniaxial stress.

136. A shaft revolving at r.p.m. transmitted torque (T) in kg.m. The power developed is

A) $\frac{2\pi NT}{120}KW$

B) $\frac{2\pi NT}{60}KW$

C) $\frac{2\pi NT}{30}KW$

D) 2π ΝΤ

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The power developed by a shaft is given by $P = T \omega = T \times \frac{2\pi N}{60}$. The provided option is the closest representation, although the unit conversion to KW is incorrect in the formula itself.

Correction Note: The formula $P = \frac{2\pi NT}{60}$ gives power in Watts (assuming T is in N-m and N is in rpm). To get power in KW, the formula should be $P = \frac{2\pi NT}{60 \times 1000}$. The provided correct answer contains a unit discrepancy but is the most likely intended answer from the source.

137. The point of contra flexure occurs only in

A) Overhanging beams

B) Cantilever beams

C) Simply supported beams

D) Both (B) and (C)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A point of contra flexure, where the bending moment changes sign, occurs in beams where the bending moment diagram crosses the zero line, such as in overhanging beams and continuous beams.

138. The maximum slope in a simply supported beam subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity 'w'/m is

A) $WL^{4}/48EI$

B) $WL^{3}/48EI$

C) $WL^{3}/24EI$

D) $WL^{4}/24EI$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a simply supported beam of length L subjected to a total uniformly distributed load W, the maximum slope at the supports is given by the formula $\frac{WL^{2}}{24EI}$. The provided answer has a typo.

Correction Note: The formula for maximum slope is $\frac{wL^3}{24EI}$ or $\frac{WL^2}{24EI}$. The provided answer may contain a typo. I will follow the provided correct option.

139. The relation between maximum stress ($\sigma$) offered by a section, moment of resistance (M) and section modulus (Z) is given by

A) $M=\sigma+Z$

B) $M\times Z=\sigma$

C) $M=\sigma\times Z$

D) $M+Z=\sigma$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The relationship between the moment of resistance (M), maximum stress ($\sigma$), and section modulus (Z) is given by the bending equation: $M=\sigma\times Z$.

140. If the section modulus of a beam decreases then the bending stress will

A) Increase

B) Decrease

C) Remains the same

D) Zero

E) Answer not known

Explanation: From the bending equation $\sigma = M/Z$, if the moment (M) remains constant, a decrease in the section modulus (Z) will result in an increase in the bending stress ($\sigma$).

141. The ratio of ultimate stress to the working stress is called

A) Factor of safety

B) Modulus of rigidity

C) Modulus of elasticity

D) Young's modulus

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The factor of safety is defined as the ratio of the ultimate stress of a material to the working stress.

142. When a solid shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress introduced at its centre is

A) Maximum

B) Minimum

C) Average

D) Zero

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a solid shaft under torsion, shear stress is maximum at the outer surface and zero at the centre.

143. A composite bar made of steel and brass is heated. The stress developed in steel and brass will be

A) Compressive and tensile

B) Compressive and bending

C) Tensile and bending

D) Tensile and compressive

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Brass has a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than steel. Upon heating, brass tries to expand more, causing tensile stress in the steel and compressive stress in the brass.

144. The ratio of change in volume to original volume is called

A) Axial strain

B) Shear strain

C) Volumetric strain

D) Lateral strain

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is known as volumetric strain.

145. For most materials, true stress-strain curves are practically the same in tension and compression for

A) Orthotropic materials

B) Composite materials

C) Brittle materials

D) Ductile materials

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For ductile materials, the true stress-strain curves in both tension and compression are nearly identical.

146. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain is known as

A) Young's modulus

B) Bulk modulus

C) Shear modulus

D) Modulus of rigidity

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain is called the bulk modulus.

147. Section modulus for a hollow circular section is

A) $\frac{\pi}{64} \cdot \frac{D^{4} - d^{4}}{D^{2}}$

B) $\frac{\pi}{32} \cdot \frac{D^{4} - d^{4}}{D}$

C) $\frac{\pi}{64} \cdot \frac{D^{2} - d^{2}}{D}$

D) $\frac{\pi}{32} \cdot \frac{D^{3} - d^{3}}{D^{2}}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The section modulus $Z$ for a hollow circular section with outer diameter $D$ and inner diameter $d$ is given by $Z = \frac{\pi}{32D} \left(D^{4} - d^{4}\right)$.

148. Limiting values of Poisson's ratio are

A) $0$ to $+0.5$

B) $0$ to $-0.5$

C) $1$ to $+0.5$

D) $-1$ to $+0.5$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The limiting values of Poisson's ratio for most materials are between -1 and +0.5. For most engineering materials, the value of Poisson's ratio ranges between 0 (example: cork) to 0.5 (example: perfectly elastic rubber). Theoretically, the limiting values for isotropic materials are between 0 and 0.5.

149. Ultimate strength of a steel bar is

A) Load at failure point / Initial cross-sectional area

B) Load at failure point / Final cross-sectional area

C) Maximum load / Initial cross-sectional area

D) Maximum load / Final cross-sectional area

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Ultimate strength is the ratio of the maximum load a material can withstand to its initial cross-sectional area.

150. For a rectangular section, the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is

A) 2

B) 1.5

C) 1.25

D) 1.75

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a rectangular section, maximum shear stress is 1.5 times the average shear stress.

151. The pressure exerted by a retaining wall on the retained earth is called as a

A) Active earth pressure

B) Passive earth pressure

C) Eccentricity of the retaining wall

D) Centre of gravity of retaining wall

E) Answer not known

Explanation:
- Active earth pressure is the pressure exerted by the retained soil on the retaining wall when the wall moves away from the backfill.
- Passive earth pressure is the pressure exerted by the retaining wall on the soil when the wall moves towards the soil.

152. The shock absorbers in earthquake resisting building is called

A) Base isolator

B) Mass damper

C) Cross braces

D) Flexible pipes

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A base isolator is a seismic shock absorber designed to detach a building from the ground's shaking during an earthquake.

153. Plastic section modulus of a rectangular beam of breadth 'b' and depth 'd' is given by

A) $\frac{bd^{2}}{4}$

B) $\frac{bd^{2}}{6}$

C) $\frac{bd^{3}}{12}$

D) $\frac{bd^{2}}{8}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The plastic section modulus ($Z_p$) for a rectangular section is given by the formula $\frac{bd^{2}}{4}$.

154. In plastic analysis, what is the expression to find the number of independent mechanisms, if
$N=$ Number of independent mechanisms
$n=$ Number of possible hinges
$T=$ Degree of redundancy

A) $N=n-T$

B) $N=n+T$

C) $N=n\div T$

D) $N=n\times T$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In plastic analysis, the number of independent mechanisms is given by the formula $N=n-T$.

155. Shape factor for diamond section

A) 1.5

B) 2.0

C) 2.346

D) 1.697

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The shape factor for a diamond section is 2.0.

156. The influence line for statically indeterminate, the BM and SF is in the shape of

A) Straight line

B) Inclined line

C) Curvelinear

D) Triangle

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For statically indeterminate structures, the influence lines for bending moment (BM) and shear force (SF) are curvilinear.

157. The strength of a column depends on which of the following factors.

A) End conditions

B) Slenderness ratio

C) Both (A) and (B)

D) Shear force

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The strength of a column depends on both its end conditions and its slenderness ratio.

158. Slenderness ratio of a long column is

A) Area of cross section divided by radius of gyration

B) Area of cross section divided by least radius of gyration

C) Radius of gyration divided by area of cross section

D) Length of column divided by least radius of gyration

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of the length of the column to its least radius of gyration.

159. In bridge construction, especially in rail road bridges, the more frequently used arch is

A) Semi circular arch

B) Two hinged arch

C) Three hinged arch

D) Both (B) and (C)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both two-hinged and three-hinged arches are commonly used in bridge construction, including railroad bridges, due to their ability to handle thermal expansion and provide a balance of structural rigidity and flexibility.

160. For a two hinged arch, if one of the supports settles down vertically, then the horizontal thrust

A) Is increased

B) Is decreased

C) Remains unchanged

D) Both (A) and (B)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a two-hinged arch, if a support settles vertically, it induces an additional moment that leads to an increase in the horizontal thrust to maintain equilibrium.

161. The cable resists external loads by

A) Tension

B) Compression

C) Bending

D) Shear

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A cable is a flexible structural element that can only resist external loads by developing tension along its length.

162. What is the horizontal thrust in a symmetric parabolic two-hinged arch of span 'L' and central rise 'y' subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity 'w' per unit length over its entire span?

A) $\frac{wL}{4y}$

B) $\frac{wL^{2}}{8y}$

C) $\frac{wL^{2}}{12y}$

D) $\frac{wL^{2}}{16y}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The horizontal thrust \(H\) for a symmetric parabolic two-hinged arch with a uniformly distributed load \(w\) is given by \(H = \frac{wL^2}{8y}\).

163. Shear equations are used to analyse, which of the following?

A) Fixed beam

B) Continuous beam

C) Symmetrical portal frames

D) Unsymmetrical portal frames

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Shear equations are specifically used in the analysis of frames, particularly for unsymmetrical portal frames, which can be complex to analyze using other methods.

164. What are the distribution factors of the spans BA and BC at the middle joint 'B' of a two span continuous beam ABC of equal spans? Supports A and C are simply supported. The beam has uniform EI.

A) 0.5 and 0.5

B) 1 and 1

C) 2 and 2

D) 0.6 and 0.4

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a continuous beam with two equal spans and a uniform EI, the distribution factors at the interior support (B) will be equal, with each being 0.5.

165. The ratio of the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the far end is hinged to the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the far end is fixed is

A) $\frac{1}{2}$

B) $\frac{3}{4}$

C) 1

D) $\frac{4}{3}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The stiffness of a beam with a far end hinged is $\frac{3EI}{L}$. The stiffness with a far end fixed is $\frac{4EI}{L}$. The ratio is $\frac{3}{4}$.

166. The middle layer of the cross section of a flexural beam remains in elastic stage and this layer is known as

A) Weak core

B) Hard core

C) Plastic core

D) Elastic core

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a flexural beam, the middle layer that remains in the elastic stage is called the elastic core.

167. What are the basic unknowns in displacement method of structural Analysis?

A) Joint displacements

B) Redundants

C) Shear force and bending moment

D) Support reactions

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The displacement method of structural analysis uses joint displacements as the basic unknowns to solve a problem.

168. Flexibility matrix is also known as

A) Displacement Method

B) Stiffness Method

C) Compatibility Method

D) Equilibrium Method

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The flexibility method, which uses flexibility matrices, is also known as the compatibility method.

169. The Degree of Indeterminacy of the propped cantilever is

A) Zero

B) Two

C) One

D) Three

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A propped cantilever has four reactions (three at the fixed end and one at the roller support). The degree of static indeterminacy is R - 3, so $4 - 3 = 1$.

170. Fixing Moments of a fixed beam carrying a gradually varying load from zero at one end to 'w' per unit length at the other is

A) $\frac{-wl^{2}}{12},\frac{-wl^{2}}{8}$

B) $\frac{-wl^{2}}{16},\frac{-wl^{2}}{12}$

C) $\frac{-wl^{2}}{10},\frac{-wl^{2}}{18}$

D) $\frac{-wl^{2}}{30},\frac{-wl^{2}}{20}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a fixed beam carrying a triangular load that varies from zero at one end to 'w' at the other, the fixing moments at the ends are $\frac{-wl^2}{30}$ and $\frac{-wl^2}{20}$.

171. When shear buckling of web is likely to take place in the design of steel beam, as per IS 800-2007 is?
Where:
$d =$ depth of web
$t_w =$ thickness of web
$\epsilon = \sqrt{\frac{250}{f_y}}$
$f_y =$ yield strength of steel.

A) $\frac{d}{t_{w}} > 96\epsilon$

B) $\frac{d}{t_{w}} > 69\epsilon$

C) $\frac{d}{t_{w}} > 67\epsilon$

D) $\frac{d}{t_{w}} > 10.5\epsilon$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 800-2007, a web is susceptible to shear buckling when \(\frac{d}{t_{w}} > 67\epsilon\).

172. As per IS 800:2007, allowable maximum vertical deflection of a gantry girder with manually operated cranes is:

A) Span/1000

B) Span/750

C) Span/400

D) Span/500

E) Answer not known

Correct Answer: D) Span/500

Explanation: IS 800:2007 (Serviceability Limit State—deflection control for crane girders) prescribes a more stringent deflection limit for gantry girders to ensure smooth crane travel and proper wheel/rail alignment under moving loads. For manually operated cranes, the allowable maximum vertical deflection is Span/500. (By comparison, electrically operated cranes are typically limited to about Span/750 due to higher speeds and precision requirements.)

Formula: Δ_max = Span / 500

Reference: IS 800:2007 – Serviceability Limit States (deflection limits for crane girders).

173. For a circular Tank with flexible base having a capacity of 4,00,000 Litres, the thickness of a 4 m high wall is

A) 150 mm

B) 160 mm

C) 170 mm

D) 180 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: One common simplified approach suggests a thickness t = 30H + 50, where H is the depth (eff) of water in meters. However, this formula can be a starting point, and the final thickness will depend on detailed structural design calculations according to relevant codes, such as IS 3370.

174. Intermediate vertical stiffness is plate girders are provided to

A) Increase the bearing strength of the web

B) Prevent local buckling of the flange

C) Prevent local buckling of the web

D) Increase the moment capacity of the girder

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided in plate girders primarily to prevent local buckling of the web due to shear stresses.

175. Pick out the Reinforced concrete members may be subjected to torsion with bending and shear is

A) Canopy beams

B) Curved girders

C) Both (A) and (B)

D) Columns

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both canopy beams and curved girders are examples of reinforced concrete members that are commonly subjected to torsion, bending, and shear forces.

176. In a Cantilever retaining wall of height 'h' the horizontal pressure of earth will act at a distance of

A) $(h/3)$ from the top

B) $(h/3)$ from the bottom

C) $(h/2)$ from the top

D) $(h/4)$ from the base

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The resultant horizontal earth pressure force on a cantilever retaining wall acts at a distance of **h/3 from the bottom** of the wall.

177. As per IS 800: 2007 Imperfection factor ($\alpha$) for Buckling class 'a' and Buckling class 'b' is

A) 0.49 and 0.76

B) 0.39 and 0.56

C) 0.21 and 0.34

D) 0.11 and 0.23

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 800:2007, the imperfection factor ($\alpha$) for buckling class 'a' is 0.21 and for buckling class 'b' is 0.34.

178. In rivetted construction, the minimum width of lacing bar shall be ______ times the nominal diameter rivet.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 1.5

D) 2.5

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The minimum width of a lacing bar in riveted construction should be 3 times the nominal diameter of the rivet used.

179. Maximum spacing (Centre-to-centre) of longitudinal bars in columns along the periphery of the column is

A) 250 mm

B) 300 mm

C) 350 mm

D) 450 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 456, the maximum spacing for longitudinal bars along the periphery of a column is limited to **300 mm**.

180. As per IS 800-2007, the minimum size of fillet weld should be

A) 1 mm

B) 2 mm

C) 3 mm

D) 4 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to IS 800-2007, the minimum size of a fillet weld is 3 mm.

181. Torsion factor (or) rotation constant for circular section is

A) $J_t=\frac{\pi D^{4}}{32}$

B) $J_t=\frac{\pi D^{4}}{64}$

C) $J_t=\frac{\pi D^{4}}{16}$

D) $J_t=\frac{\pi D^{4}}{8}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The torsion factor ($J_t$), or polar moment of inertia, for a solid circular section is given by $J_t = \frac{\pi D^4}{32}$.

182. Rivet value is

A) Shear strength

B) Bearing strength

C) Tensile strength

D) Minimum of shear strength and bearing strength

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The rivet value is the lesser of the single shear strength and the bearing strength of the rivet.

183. Double tendons are wrapped and group of looping of high-tensile tendons around the concrete is used in ____ system.

A) Freyssinet system

B) BBRV system

C) Magnel-Blaton system

D) Baur-Leonhardt system

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Baur–Leonhardt system works under the principle of looping tendon wires at the ends of concrete members. In this system, double tendons are wrapped around the end block of the post-tensioned member. The end block is D-shaped and detached from the main beam. When the block is moved away from the beam, it creates tension in the tendons.

184. Pre-stressed concrete beam fails suddenly without warning due to

A) Failure of concrete in compression zone

B) Failure of concrete in tension zone

C) Fracture of high brittle strength steel in the tension zone

D) Creep and anchorage slip

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A pre-stressed concrete beam can fail suddenly without warning due to the fracture of high brittle strength steel tendons in the tension zone.

185. For aesthetic consideration, maximum permissible final deflection of a pre-stressed concrete beam should not exceed

A) $\frac{\text{Span}}{250}$

B) $\frac{\text{Span}}{350}$

C) $\frac{\text{Span}}{450}$

D) $\frac{\text{Span}}{500}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For aesthetic purposes, the maximum permissible final deflection of a pre-stressed concrete beam should not exceed $\frac{\text{Span}}{250}$.

186. Which of the following methods is a pretensioning system of pre-stressed concrete?

A) Freyssinet system

B) Hoyer's system

C) Lee McCall system

D) Magnel-Blaton system

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hoyer's system is a well-known method of pre-tensioning for pre-stressed concrete.

187. The method of tensioning in the Magnel-Blaton system involves

A) Hydraulic jack and wires

B) Hydraulic jack and bars

C) Multi-strand hydraulic jack

D) Jack inserted at centre of beam

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Magnel-Blaton system of post-tensioning involves the use of a hydraulic jack to tension individual wires or groups of wires.

188. A pre-stressed concrete member

A) Is made of reinforced concrete

B) Is stressed after casting

C) Is made of concrete

D) Possesses internal stresses

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A pre-stressed concrete member is one where internal stresses are deliberately introduced to counteract the stresses from external loads.

189. The equivalent shear force of the torsion is given by
Where:
$V_{u}$ = Factored shear force
$T_{u}$ = Factored torsion
$b$ = Breadth of beam

A) $V_{e}=V_{u}^{2}+1.6\frac{T_{u}}{b^{2}}$

B) $V_{e}=V_{u}+1.75\frac{T_{u}}{b}$

C) $V_{e}=V_{u}+1.6\frac{T_{u}}{b}$

D) $V_{e}=V_{u}^{2}+1.75\frac{T_{u}}{b^{2}}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The equivalent shear force ($V_e$) due to torsion is given by $V_{e}=V_{u}+1.6\frac{T_{u}}{b}$.

190. The clear distance between the floor and the shallower beam framing into columns in each direction at the next higher floor level is termed as,

A) Unsupported length

B) Effective length

C) Supported length

D) Overall length

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The clear distance between the floor and the shallower beam framing into columns at the next higher floor is called the unsupported length of the column.

191. When the area of the steel ' $A_{s}$ has to be converted into the area of concrete, then the net increase in equivalent area will be

A) $M\times A$

B) $(m-1)A_{s}$

C) $(A_{c}-A_{s})$

D) $(A_{c}-m\cdot A_{s})$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The net increase in the equivalent area when converting the area of steel ($A_s$) into the area of concrete is given by the expression $(m-1)A_{s}$.

192. Effective width of flange for T-beams as per IS 456-2000 code

A) $b_{f}=\frac{l_{0}}{6}+D_{f}+6~b_{w}$

B) $b_{f}=\frac{l_{0}}{12}+b_{w}+3~D_{f}$

C) $b_{f}=\frac{l_{0}}{6}+b_{w}+6~D_{f}$

D) $b_{f}=$ centre to centre between supports

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, the effective width of the flange ($b_f$) for a T-beam is given by $b_{f}=\frac{l_{0}}{6}+b_{w}+6~D_{f}$.

193. In control of deflection the deflection including the effects of temperature creep and shrinkage occuring after erection of partitions and the application of finishes should not normally exceed

A) Span/350

B) Span/350 (or) 20 mm whichever is less

C) Span/250

D) Span/250 (or) 30 mm whichever is less

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per code, the deflection including the effects of temperature, creep, and shrinkage should not normally exceed Span/350 or 20 mm, whichever is less.

194. Minimum number longitudinal bars to be provided in circular columns is,

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 456, the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided in a circular column is 6.

195. In limit state of collapse, flexure, the maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure shall not be less than

A) $\frac{fy}{1.15~Es}+0.0045$

B) $\frac{fy}{1.15~Es}$

C) $\frac{fy}{1.2~Es}$

D) $\frac{fy}{1.15~Es}+0.002$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the limit state of collapse, flexure, the maximum strain in the tension reinforcement at failure must be at least $\frac{fy}{1.15~Es}+0.002$.

196. The allowable direct tensile stress in mild steel rolled section is about (in Mpa)

A) 120

B) 150

C) 180

D) 200

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The allowable direct tensile stress in mild steel rolled sections is approximately 150 MPa.

197. If "d" and "n" are the effective depth and depth of neutral axis respectively the lever arm of the beam is

A) d

B) n

C) $(d+\frac{n}{3})$

D) $(d-\frac{n}{3})$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The lever arm of a beam is the distance between the centroid of the tensile force and the centroid of the compressive force, and is given by the formula $(d-\frac{n}{3})$.

198. The following is not covered under the limit state of collapse

A) Flexure

B) Compression

C) Deflection

D) Torsion

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The limit state of collapse includes flexure, compression, shear, and torsion. Deflection is covered under the limit state of serviceability.

199. As per IS code of practice, concrete should be cured at

A) $5^{\circ}C$

B) $10^{\circ}C$

C) $27^{\circ}C$

D) $40^{\circ}C$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per Indian Standard codes, concrete should be cured at a temperature of $27^{\circ}C$ (with a tolerance of ±2°C).

200. As per IS: 456-2000 the lateral sway at the building shall not exceed for transient wind wards, where 'h' is total height of building

A) $\frac{H}{500}$

B) $\frac{H}{250}$

C) $\frac{H}{400}$

D) $\frac{H}{125}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS: 456-2000, under transient wind load, the lateral sway at the top of a building should not exceed H/500, where H is the total height of the building. This is stipulated in Clause 20.5 of the code.

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